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Олимпиада по английскому языку для 9-11 классов с ответами. Аудирование, чтение, грамматика, письмо. Критерии оценки.

Reading
Task 1
Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph

THE TRUTH ABOUT LYING
1 Knowing the good from the bad 6 The worst kind?
2 Different categories 7 Both sides benefit
3 A difficult distinction 8 How to hear lies
4 Why we need to lie 9 Visual signs
5 Learnt then forbidden 10 Not your responsibility
A
Can you imagine a whole day without telling lies? ‘Yes, of course,’ most people would answer, but then they’ve probably forgotten all those little lies that are said so easily — ‘This is delicious.’, ‘You look lovely in that shirt.’, ‘I’d love to come with you.’, etc. Lying is a way of making life run more smoothly.
B
We are told not to lie from the moment we learn how to do it. According to psychologist Catherine Brown, this is at the age of about four when children realise they can deceive people. We are not born liars.
C
In childhood, the line between imagination and lying is often not clear. Children are praised for creative imagination, but generally criticised for hiding the truth.

D
As adults we have definite ideas about which kind of lies are OK and which are not. Very often the reason for lie is the important thing in accepting or rejecting the lie.
E
Generally speaking there are three types of lies, and liars. The first sort of liar wants to please people, the second wants to protect him or herself, the third sort doesn’t care about other people and lies to get what he or she wants.
F
If someone is fishing for compliments and you tell them what they want to hear, you probably think it’s a ‘kind’ lie. However, you get something as a result of this lie — affection, friendship, peace and quiet.
G
When you lie for self-protection, the reason is clearer. To explain your lateness, you tell your boss the train was cancelled, not that you overslept. You cannot be blamed for being late, because you are not responsible for the ‘behaviour’ of the train and the consequences.
H
The third sort of lie could be more dangerous. It is, for example, the kind that people tell in order to climb up the ladder at work, without caring who gets hurt in the process.
I
But what about being lied to? Can you spot when someone is telling you a lie? Apparently there are some verbal clues — lots of ums and ahs — and liars take longer to answer a question. They also speak faster but don’t always give the right amount of detail.
J
And then there’s body language. Experts say there are certain things that can help identify someone who’s not telling the truth. Speaking through their fingers and putting their hands over the face is one. Playing with their hair or clothes and being unable to stay still for any length of time is another. But the truth of the matter is that we all lie at some time, and if anyone tells you they don’t, they’re lying.

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Олимпиада по английскому языку 2015г. 9-11 класс

I. Decide which word best fits each space.

Shoplifting

Last year, losses from shops through shoplifting and theft by staff (1) to over $ 1 billion. There are many (2) for shopkeepers themselves to reduce shoplifting. As with all types of crime, prevention is better than (3) . The best deterrent is the (4) of staff properly trained in how to identify potential shoplifters. There are also many security (5) now available. Video camera surveillance is a popular system, even with quite small retailers. In clothes shops, magnetic tag marking systems that set off an alarm have proved their (6). However, there are many (7) measures that retailers should consider. Better lighting and ceiling-hung mirrors can help staff to (8) all parts of the display area. Similarly, simply arranging shelves and display units to allow clear (9) of vision is a good deterrent. Another problem for retailers is the (`10) of stolen credit cards to buy goods and services. Many retailers avoid this by always checking the (11) of a card used for purchase. Electronic systems are now available to (12) up the procedure.

Most companies keep a petty (13) box for small expenses. They are a popular (14) for thieves. It is not enough to have a box that locks. A thief can steal it and then open it at leisure. Lock it in a drawer as well. Telephones, typewriters, word processors and computers are also vulnerable because they are (15). Property making is a good deterrent and helps the police return stolen goods if they are (16). And remember that in many businesses information is valuable to competitors and should be protected.

1. a).amounted b) accumulated c) went d) added

2. a)opportunities b) schemes c) ideas d) occasions

3. a) remedy b) loss c) cure d) conviction

4. a) knowledge b) presence c) number d) importance

5. a) devices b) methods c) tricks d) machines

6. a) reliability b) worth c) valuation d) identity

7. a) better b) easier c) simpler d) bigger

8. a) notice b) watch c) control d) regard

9. a) field b) areas c) systems d) angles

10. a) employment b) application c) technique d) use

11. a) honesty b) forgery c) validity d) value

12. a) speed b) check c) take d) key

13. a) money b) bank c) saving d) cash

14. a) robbery b) target c) aim d) object

15. a) portable b) expensive c) stolen d) attractive

16. a) reported b) known c) revealed d) traced

II. Read the text and choose from the list A-I given below the best phrase to fill each of the spaces.

Why You Feel Under the Weather.

Most of us casually tune in to the weather forecast to find out whether we should take an umbrella to work, or if we should go to the football match. But perhaps we should listen more carefully, because the day’s weather could seriously affect how we feel. Of course, we mostly feel good when the sun shines and subdued when it rains. But scientists and doctors are starting to realize that cold weather can bring not just low temperatures but also depression and anxiety. Growing numbers of people are being diagnosed as weather-sensitive, with some experts estimating (17)…..

The hazards of hot climates are well known. When we head for holidays in the tropics we know (18)…. . It comes as a surprise to learn (19)…. . Weather-related symptoms can be far more severe than we traditionally associate with inclement weather, such as headaches and muscular pain. Of course, sufferers from rheumatism have long complained (20)…. More dangerously a cold snap can bring on fatal heart attacks and strokes in the elderly. In Britain there are far more deaths a week in the winter than in the summer. It is generally accepted (21) …. . Asthma, allergies and some psychological conditions are all markedly affected by changes in the weather. The most dramatic cases occur on the warm dry days when the sky is filled with low clouds. In these conditions some people go from excellent health to marked illness in a matter of minutes. And amazingly, a few people are so acutely weather-sensitive (22)…. .

A that they completely lose consciousness during thunder and lightning storms

B that there is no evidence for these ideas

C that low temperatures are a causative factor in many cases

D that they cannot expose themselves to sunlight

E that one third of the population could be adversely affected

F that they feel worse when it rains

G that we must protect ourselves against the harmful rays of the sun

H that even temperature climates present a health risk

I that these diseases are no longer dangerous

III. Read the texts and match them with their headings. One heading is extra.

Sport Spirit E. Thrill Factors

B. Popular Game F. Essential Skills

C. Sporting Nation G. Alternative Exercises

D. Great Cure H. Public Interest

1. Qigong is an excellent way of treating disease. It consists of a system of meditative exercises which involve standing in various postures for half an hour per day, and carrying out simple movements and breathing exercises.

Qigong reduces stress, improves circulation, and helps strengthen the immune system.

2. Basketball is a popular game in America. Only five people play on each team. One American basketball team, the Harlem Globetrotters,are famous all over the world. These extraordinary sportsmen, all very tall, have shown the world that sport can be funny as well as exciting. Many unusual sports are popular nowadays – parachuting, karate, different kinds of dance, but traditional sports are still just as much fun.

3. There are two types of exercise: anaerobic and aerobic. Football and squash are anaerobic exercises, you move suddenly and quickly. They make your muscles stronger but they don’t help your heart very much. Swimming and running are aerobic exercises. In aerobic exercises you move constantly.

4. Risky or extreme sports are one of the fastest-growing leisure activities. Dare-devils try anything from organized bungee jumps to illegally jumping off buildings. These people never feel so alive as when they are risking their lives. In their quest for the ultimate sensation, thrill-seekers are thinking up more and more elaborate and dangerous sports.

5. The first of sports invented by the British is a long one. It includes football, golf, badminton, lawn tennis, cricket, rugby, squash, billiards and snooker. In Britain today, sport is almost a national obsession. Sport occupies 40% of the news pages of the popular newspaper. Many British people are more interested in sport than anything else.

6. Physical education should not be optional as it is an important part of the school curriculum. In these lessons all children learn how to interact with each other, which is a vital skill in later life. Also, sport in schools gives less academic students the opportunity to do something well. Furthermore, physical education is essential for children who live in towns and cities as it difficult for them to find safe places to exercise during their leisure times.

7. It takes a combination of qualities to become a professional athlete. The most important of these is determination, which is what gives them the power to succeed. The other qualities tend to depend on the type of sport. For example, while a long distance runner need stamina and lean body, a shot put thrower need pure physical strength and body mass.

IV. For questions 23-30 read the text below. Use the words in these boxes to form one word that fits in the same numbered space in the text.

A New Way To Get To The Airport

V. For questions 16-31 complete the following article by writing each missing word. Use only one word for each space.

Chess is (16)… of the world’s oldest games of war. It is generally said to(17) … developed in India at some period before 500 AD. The original pieces, much less mobile (18)… their modern counterparts, represented units of the ancient Indian army, foot-soldiers, cavalry, armed chariots and, of course, elephants. The fighting troops(19)… led on the chessboard, ..(20) in real life, by the king and his senior minister, the vizier, …(21) became the queen in the modern game. From India, …(22) is said, chess spread through China, Persia, and Europe. Once the game …(23) reached the West, the identity and design of the individual chess pieces was modified to reflect the social milieu of medieval Europe. The king remained unchanged but the elephant was replaced by the bishop, reflecting the power of the Church in the medieval Europe. The biggest change was the emergence of the queen as the …(24) powerful piece on the chessboard. …(25) the XX century, chess was often regarded as a game for the aristocracy of society, …(26) today it exerts a much broader appeal. Among board games, chess has the ideal blend of strategy, tactics and pure skill. The only games which compare …(27) subtiety, science and depth are shogi and go. The competition aspect of chess makes …(28) a battle between two individuals, a battle …(29) bloodshed, but still a fiece struggle of mind, will and physical endurance. More than anything …(30) chess has an ancient and distinguished history. The game provides a deep sense of continuity with the intellectual community of past ages, extending through hundreds of years and embracing ….(31) nations.

VI. Writing

Comment on the following statement.

Some people think that extreme sports help to build character.

What is your opinion? Do you agree with this statement?

Write 200–250 words.

Use the following plan:

 make an introduction (state the problem)

 express your personal opinion and give 2–3 reasons for your opinion

 express an opposing opinion and give 1–2 reasons for this opposing opinion

 explain why you don’t agree with the opposing opinion

 make a conclusion restating your position

VII. Speaking

Study the two photographs. In 1.5 minutes be ready to compare and contrast the photographs:

Give a brief description of the photos (action, location)

Say what the pictures have in common

Say in what way the pictures are different

Say which of the concerts presented in the pictures you’d prefer

You will speak for not more than 2 minutes. You have to talk continuously.

The narrator says that:

1) a square in Brancusi’s sculpture is made of oak.

2) Brancusi likes to demonstrate contrasting objects.

3) it’s difficult to guess the name of the sculpture.

4) Brancusi’s bird is crying.

5) the bird opens its mouth to sing.

6) many Mondrian’s paintings are very confusing.

7) Mondrian’s painting is like a closed window.

8) there is a wide variety of bright colours in this painting.

9) Mondrian signed the painting with his initials.

10) Mondrian also wrote some music.

Part 2 (30 minutes)

Maximum points - 10

The Green House Effect

(A) Saving the world begins at home. The energy we use to power our daily domestic lives and drive our cars produces almost half of our output of carbon dioxide, the gas which is the main contributor to the problem of global warming. The way in which we use energy is not only polluting but also incredibly wasteful. But there is nothing to stop us greatly reducing our energy consumption and creating a more comfortable world.

(B) Redesigning the home to bring our lifestyles more into balance with what the environment can cope with need not involve expensive or painful changes. Most of the technology to make the changes is already available. When the changes have been made, the home of the future will be a better place to live in. So what will it be like?

(C) We will have switched from ‘fossil fuels’ - coal, gas and oil - to sources of power which are non-polluting such as windmills or using the power of tides. Houses will be heavily insulated and heating systems made much more efficient. In addition, our future homes will use low-energy light bulbs.

(D) With water costs rising enormously, most houses will trap rainwater and store it in a large, well-insulated tank in the cellar. This tank also serves to save energy: heat is recycled from other parts of the house to maintain a high water temperature for washing and central heating.

(E) Recycling waste will be much more common than it is today. Tins, bottles, plastic, and paper will be put into vents in the wall from where they will fall into divided bins for collection. All vegetable matter will go straight on to a compost heap in the garden.

(F) The home will be a cleaner place. Air conditioning will do much more than keep you cool. It will improve air quality by filtering out contaminating dust mites and by controlling moisture and condensation.

(G) Outside the home as well, life will have become more pleasant. The car will no longer be the threat to our health that it is today: it will run on hydrogen or a mixture of battery and safer petrol. It won’t be allowed to clog up our cities: people will use the tram, a clean, fast, and quiet form of city transport which many cities are already reintroducing.

(H) This picture of the future is one which should appeal to all of us. It’s one that our grandchildren could take for granted, not believing that people lived any other way, that people went around polluting, destroying, wasting resources, and apparently not caring. But if we want our grandchildren to have a world which is cleaner and safer, we have to start to change our ways. The picture of the future can become a reality but only if we do something about it. And we should do something about it soon.

Below you will find four headings. Each heading describes the contents of one of the paragraphs in the passage. However, since there are eight paragraphs and only four headings, four of the paragraphs will not fit any of the headings below.

You need to choose which heading best describes which paragraph. Write the letter of a paragraph next to the number of the heading 11 -14 on the separate answer sheet.

11. Homes of the future will be more hygienic.

12. We ought to change the way we live.

13. The way we live now damages the world.

14. Future energy needs will be lower and not cause pollution.

Choose option A , В, C or D which best answers the question. Circle the correct letter in boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet.

15. The author’s intention in writing the above article was to show...

A. the sort of future we can expect for our grandchildren.

B. why we should reduce pollution and use energy more efficiently.

C. why we have taken steps to reduce pollution and improve our use of energy.

D. how changes in house design will encourage people to use less polluting energy.

16. Which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with?

A. In the future, houses will be much healthier.

B. In the future, people will produce much less waste.

C. In the future, very few people will own their own car.

D. In the future, the problem of global warming will be better understood.

17. In the passage the author explains...

A. why using less energy has become more popular.

B. why sources of energy are going to become more scarce.

C. how savings could be made in the way energy is used.

D. how, unless we use less energy, energy costs will rise.

18. In the passage the author DOES NOT explain...

A. how our cities could be made cleaner.

B. why our use of energy needs to change.

C. why water costs will rise in the future.

D. how the way we live produces global warming.

19. According to the author, one of the differences between our way of life and that of people in the future might be that...

A. cars will be much cheaper to maintain.

B. fewer people will travel in the cities.

C. cars will have far more safety features.

D. cars will be used less than they are today.

20. The passage describes the homes of the future. Such homes, according to the author, might NOT be built if we...

A. could not afford the necessary technology.

B. could not find alternative sources of energy.

C. were unable to reduce the amount of waste we produce.

D. failed to agree to make necessary changes in our lives.

Part 3 (15 minutes)

Maximum points - 20

Use of English

Fill in the gaps in the text choosing an appropriate word from the column on the right. Choose one word once only. There are two extra words in the right column which you don’t have to choose. Write the letter which marks the word next to the number of the gap on the answer sheet.

Part 4 (30 minutes)

Maximum points - 10

Comment on the following problem: Modern libraries in the digital age should be different from the libraries of the past.

In your comment use the information from the Internet below.

Modern Libraries

Many people, when asked about libraries, imagine old buildings with heavy bookshelves and dimmed light. Libraries around the world are heading into the future, creating for their patrons a more dynamic, multi-level environment for learning and pleasure.

Enjoy most tremendous examples of how modern libraries are shaping the way we learn and enjoy reading in the digital age.

Write 100-120 words. Remember to

Make an introduction;

Express your personal opinion on the problem and give reasons for your opinion;

Express your attitude towards the information from the Internet;

Make a conclusion.

Write in your own words.

Похожая информация.

9-11 классы 2014

ВНИМАНИЕ! В аудиторию запрещено вносить любые средства мобильной связи (мобильные телефоны, пейджеры и т.п. техника), плееры и др.

ЗАПРЕЩАЕТСЯ использование словарей и справочной литературы!

Рассаживать участников следует таким образом, чтобы они не видели работы других участников.

Все инструкции для участников перед проведением письменных конкурсов даются на русском языке.

Перед началом письменных конкурсов старший член жюри в аудитории проводит общий инструктаж. В инструктаже обязательно должны быть отмечены следующие моменты:

1. Перед началом письменного конкурса объявить:

• О продолжительности конкурса.

Listening comprehension: 8 минут.

Integrated reading and listening: 7 минут.

Reading comprehension: 25 минут.

Use of English: 60 минут.

Writing: 50 минут.

• Выходить во время конкурса из аудитории не рекомендуется. Выход в туалет разрешен только по одному. На это время участник сдает свою работу дежурным членам жюри. На листе ответов делается запись о времени отсутствия. Если во время конкурса у участника возникнут вопросы, можно поднять руку и ждать, когда подойдет член жюри и ответит на вопрос участника. Члены жюри не могут отвечать на вопросы, связанные с текстом задания. Во время конкурсов Listening и Integrated reading and listening нельзя выходить из аудитории и задавать любые вопросы.

2. После общей вводной части члены жюри раздают листы ответов (в конкурсе Writing задание написано на листе ответов ). Старший член жюри в аудитории проводит инструктаж по порядку оформления листов ответов:

• На листе ответов указываются: № участника.
• На листе ответов категорически запрещается указывать фамилии, делать рисунки или какие-либо отметки.
• Бумага для черновиков раздается только в конкурсе Writing , в остальных конкурсах в качестве черновика может быть использован лист с заданием.
• Письменная работа пишется только черными или синими чернилами. Запрещены красные, зеленые и т.п. Нельзя писать карандашом и делать карандашные отметки в тексте.
• Сокращать в письменной работе ничего нельзя. Все сокращения будут расценены как орфографические ошибки.
• Писать следует разборчиво, спорные случаи (о/а) трактуются не в пользу участника.
• Никаких замазываний корректирующей жидкостью, стираний делать не следует. Если необходимо исправить, то можно аккуратно зачеркнуть неправильный ответ.

3. После инструкций по заполнению листа ответов раздается текст с заданием и на доске пишется время начала конкурса.

1. За 15 и за 5 минут до окончания работы:

• Напомнить об оставшемся времени и предупредить о необходимости тщательной проверки работы.
• Напомнить, что членам жюри должны быть сданы листы ответов, тексты заданий/ черновики.
• Напомнить, что все ответы должны быть перенесены в листы ответов, так как тексты заданий/ черновики не проверяются .
• Строго следить , чтобы не были вынесены из аудитории тексты заданий, листы ответов и черновики.

При сдаче работ тщательно проверить:

• наличие всех выданных листов ответов.
• наличие всех выданных текстов заданий.
• отсутствие посторонних пометок в листе ответов.

Олимпиада по английскому языку состоит из 5 частей :

1. конкурс понимания прослушанного текста (Listening Comprehension);
2. конкурс понимания письменного и прослушанного текстов (Integrated Reading and Listening);
3. конкурс понимания письменного текста (Reading Comprehension);
4. лексико-грамматический тест (Use of English);

4) конкурс письменной речи (Writing).

За каждый правильный ответ участник получает один балл. Конкурс письменной речи оценивается в 20 баллов (Writing – 20 баллов).

Максимальное количество баллов – 110.

Учащиеся заносят свои ответы в бланки ответов ( Answer sheet ), которые выдаются каждому участнику олимпиады. Задание из раздела Writing выполняется на бланке самого задания. Ни на бланке ответов (Answer sheet), ни на бланке задания из раздела Writing фамилия и имя учащегося НЕ пишутся. Каждый участник вписывает свой идентификационный номер, который ему присваивается до написания олимпиады.

Орфографические ошибки в заданиях учитываются, при наличии орфографической ошибки в листе ответов балл за правильный ответ не начисляется.

Часть 1. Конкурс понимание прослушанного текста (Listening Comprehension)

При проведении конкурса понимания прослушанного текста (раздел Listening ) необходимо:

1. дать участникам 1 минуту для ознакомления с первым заданием;
2. включить запись (дорожка № 1);
3. дать участникам 1 минуту для ознакомления со вторым заданием;
4. включить запись (дорожка № 2);

Часть 2. Конкурс понимание прочитанного и прослушанного текста (Integrated Reading and Listening)

При проведении данного конкурса необходимо:

1. дать участникам 2 минуты для чтения текста и ознакомления с заданием;
2. включить запись (дорожка № 3);
3. дать участникам 50 секунд просмотреть свои ответы;
4. включить запись (дорожка № 3) второй раз;
5. дать участникам 2 минуты, чтобы они могли перенести ответы в бланк ответов.

Часть 3. Конкурс понимания письменного текста (Reading Comprehension)

По сложности задания соответствуют уровню В2+ (усложненному продвинутому пороговому уровню) и С1 (Advanced – Уровень профессионального владения). Предполагается, что на этом уровне владения языком участник олимпиады должен уметь:

• понимать статьи и сообщения по современной проблематике;
• отделять важную для понимания текста информацию от второстепенной;
• понимать позицию автора текста;
• уметь установить связь между предыдущей информаций и последующей.

В текстах может содержаться до 2-3 % незнакомых слов, незнание которых не должно препятствовать пониманию текста и выполнению заданий.

Часть 4. Лексико-грамматический тест (Use of English)

Во всех за каждый правильный ответ участник получает 1 балл.

Максимальное количество баллов за лексико-грамматический тест – 50.

Вторая часть (Use of English) включает в себя задания, которые соответствуют усложненному продвинутому пороговому уровню сложности В2+ и С1 по шкале Совета Европы. Участники олимпиады должны продемонстрировать соответствующий уровень владения лексическим материалом и умение оперировать им. Проверяется также владение грамматическим материалом в рамках программы средней школы и умение практически использовать его не только на уровне отдельного предложения, но и в более широком контексте.

Часть 5. Конкурс письменной речи (Writing)

В задании письменного тура учащимся предлагается написать статью для журнала на основе объявления о художественном фильме и комментариях к нему объемом в 220 - 250 слов. К выполнению задания необходимо подойти творчески и постараться написать оригинальную статью.

На выполнение задания отводится 50 минут .

Предлагаемый жанр задания письменной работы проверяет навыки написания продуктивного письма, умение грамотно, логически и последовательно описывать события, проявляя при этом оригинальность в создании и построении сюжета.

При оценке письменной работы учитываются следующие критерии: содержание, композиция, лексика, грамматика и орфография (см. шкалу с критериями оценивания части "Writing").

ВНИМАНИЕ! Проверка письменных работ включает следующие этапы:

1) фронтальная проверка одной (случайно выбранной и отксерокопированной для всех членов жюри) работы;

2) обсуждение выставленных оценок с целью выработки сбалансированной модели проверки;

3) индивидуальная проверка работ: каждая работа проверяется в обязательном порядке двумя членами жюри независимо друг от друга (каждый член жюри получает чистую копию работы без каких-либо пометок). В случае значительного расхождения выставленных оценок (5 баллов и более), назначается еще одна проверка, «спорные» работы проверяются и обсуждаются коллективно.

По сложности задания соответствуют уровню пороговому уровню В2 (Upper-Intermediate – Пороговый продвинутый уровень) и С1 (Advanced – Уровень профессионального владения) по шкале Совета Европы.

1. Предполагается, что на этом уровне владения языком участник олимпиады должен уметь:

• писать связные тексты сложной структуры на различные темы;
• описывать и объяснять имевшие место или вымышленные события в логической и хронологической последовательности, излагать четко и ясно совокупность фактов или явлений;
• излагать и правильно композиционно строить сюжет;
• создавать логически связанный текст в соответствии с заданными параметрами жанра и стиля.

2. В хорошей статье допускается незначительное количество орфографических, грамматических или лексических ошибок (см. критерии оценивания).

3. В письменной работе поощряется оригинальность решения поставленной коммуникативной задачи.

4. Критерии оценивания письменной речи состоят из двух блоков: оценки за содержание (максимум 10 баллов) и оценки за оформление текста (максимум 10 баллов).

За превышение объема сочинения не более чем на 10 % баллы не снижаются. В том случае, если письменная работа участника имеет менее 40% от указанного в задании объема, работа не оценивается, т.к. коммуникативная задача считается невыполненной (подробнее см. критерии оценивания).

Подведение итогов:

Для каждого участника полученные баллы за каждый конкурс суммируются (16+12+12+50+20=110).

Победителем является тот участник, который набрал наибольшую сумму баллов.

Предварительный просмотр:

Предварительный просмотр:

Муниципальный этап всероссийской олимпиады школьников по английскому языку, 2014 г.

9-11 классы

Part 1. Listening Comprehension

Task 1. You will hear a conversation. For items 1-10 , decide whether the statements marked 1-10 True (A) or False (B) according to the text you hear. You will hear the recording only once .

1. The man was driving home after a party in the small hours.

1. The man heard a very loud noise.

1. The flying saucer was about half a kilometer ahead of the man.

1. At first, the man thought that he had seen an airplane.

1. The man was so frightened that he drove as far away from the UFO as he could.

1. The man says he has seen an extraterrestrial.

1. The beast was huge and hairy.

1. The beast wanted to take the man to his master.

1. The alien could speak English.

1. The flying saucer was diamond-shaped.

Task 2. Listen to the conversation ‘Healthy Lifestyle’ and choose the best answer A, B or C to questions 11-16 according to what you hear. You will hear the recording only once .

11. Which sentence is not true?

A) The man likes to eat when watching TV.

B) The man is organizing a company basketball team.

C) The man was one of the best basketball players 25 years ago.

12. What is the woman worried about?

A) Her husband is not very healthy.

B) Her husband will spend a lot of time away from home.

C) Her husband will become a fitness freak.

13. What does the woman say?

A) Her husband has once had a heart attack.

B) Her husband needs a check-up.

C) Her husband should give up the idea of playing basketball.

14. What kind of diet does the woman recommend?

A) He should consume fewer fatty foods.

B) He should eat more carbohydrates.

C) He should cut down on eating lots of fruits and vegetables.

15. What doesn’t the woman suggest doing?

A) cycling

B) weight training

C) jogging

16. Why should the man start training?

A) To make the muscles and the heart stronger.

B) To lose weight.

C) To take part in an annual body building contest.

Integrated reading and listening

Task 1. Read the text, then listen to a part of the lecture on the same topic. You will notice that some ideas coincide and some differ in them. Answer questions 1-12 by choosing A if the idea is expressed in both materials, B if it can be found only in the reading text, C if it can be found only in the audio-recording, and D if neither of the materials expresses the idea.

Now you have 2 minutes to read the text.

For many years, scientists have known that music can help soothe babies. Then they discovered that listening to music, Mozart in particular, can help babies in ways they hadn’t imagined before. The phenomenon, called the Mozart Effect, was found to have positive benefits on intelligence and creativity.

In one study, psychologists gave study participants three tests. During each of the tests, the participants of the study listened to either Mozart, relaxation music, or nothing at all. The results of the study showed that all of the participants scored better on the tests after listening to Mozart. On average, the participants added about nine points to their IQ after listening to Mozart.

The Mozart Effect also affects the creativity of babies. In his book, American author Don Campbell described how playing Mozart for babies before they are born can help them become more creative as adults. According to Campbell, the music helped stimulate their mental development. By the time the babies were born, they were already more creative than babies who did not listen to Mozart. His argument was so strong that some hospitals decided to give all new mothers CDs of Mozart’s music.

Now listen to a part of the lecture on the same topic and then do the task (questions 1-12), comparing the text above and the lecture. You will hear the lecture twice.

1. Music can calm babies down.

2. The Mozart Effect has a good impact on children’s intelligence and creativity.

3. The study involved three tests.

4. One group of the test-takers did not listen to any music at all.

5. The test-takers were college students.

6. A molecular basis for the Mozart Effect has recently been revealed.

7. The extra nine points, added to the IQs of those who listened to Mozart, disappeared after 15 minutes.

8. Rats, like humans, perform better on learning and memory tests after listening to a Mozart sonata.

9. The Mozart Effect has not been proved scientifically.

10. Don Campbell’s book The Mozart Effect has condensed the world’s research on all beneficial effects of certain types of music.

11. Some hospitals gave new mothers CDs of Mozart’s music.

12. The theory of the Mozart Effect was a marketing tool.

Reading Comprehension

Task 1. Read the following newspaper article. Five sentences have been removed from the article. Choose from the paragraphs the one, which fits each gap (1-5) best of all. There are two extra sentences, which you do not need to use.

Don’t Worry Be Happy

One of my many faults has been my tendency at times to attempt to cross a difficult bridge before I have come to it. 1) ____________ I will tell you of an example of this sort of experience which overtook me many years ago and of which I was reminded just recently.

In the early Sixties, the British India Steam Navigation Company embarked upon a project to offer educational cruises to pupils of secondary and junior schools in Britain, a project which turned out to be very popular, and I was invited to be the Protestant chaplain on the second of the early cruises.

I was pleased to accept since it was during my month"s holiday from my church. 2) ______ I was being regaled by kindly friends with stories of how badly seasick passengers could become if it was stormy - as it often was - when sailing through the Bay of Biscay, which our ship would be navigating on its way to the Mediterranean.

I decided to seek help. 3) _____________ To my surprise and disappointment, he laughed ruefully.

"I"m afraid I can offer you no help at all. I was seasick every single time we left port during my service days!"

My anxieties proved needless. 4) _______________ It was different on our homeward voyage, with a force ten gale through Biscay. Many of my fellow passengers were seasick, but to my surprise and relief I was not in the least upset by the stormy conditions and the violent movements of the ship. 5) ____________ I had tortured myself needlessly, by trying to cross bridges before I came to them.

A Then I began to worry a bit, as I had never yet been to sea.

B People can cause themselves considerable pain and nervous tension by trying to cope in

Advance with the anxiety of an impending serious threat, for instance a major operation

Or some other calamity.

C The weather on our outward voyage was marvellously sunny all the way and the Bay of

Biscay was perfectly calm.

D As a result, I have invariably suffered totally unnecessary stress and strain, of no benefit

Either to myself or to anyone else.

E All my forebodings proved completely unfounded.

F I had a friend who had commanded a frigate in the war, and I asked him to advise me

What measures I might take to prevent seasickness.

G I once had an acquaintance who refused to take out an insurance policy or prepare for the future.

Task 2. Read the following newspaper article and answer questions 6-11 by choosing А, В, C, or D. Give only one answer to each question.

UP Up and AWAY

You may remember King Kong on the Empire State Building in the film, where a comparison is implied between the then highest building in the world (at 380m) and the giant, menacing ape. Ever since the Tower of Babel, man has liked to think big in terms of building. Whether it be by constructing pyramids, ziggurats or palaces (while, perhaps paradoxically, living in huts and hovels), he has had an urge to reach for the sky and it is this that has led to the twentieth/twenty-first century craze for skyscrapers. Indeed, thrusting aggressively into the sky like rockets about to take off, these structures seem to mimic our passion for space exploration.

In order for modern skyscrapers to be a practical possibility, however, something had to happen. That was the invention of the lift, by Elisha Graves Otis, in 1854. Three years later, it was put to commercial use in New York and buildings higher than five storeys became feasible for the first time.

The first high-rise constructions were not skyscrapers as we would recognise them today, but merely taller than average buildings. In 1899, however, the Park Row office block was constructed with a steel frame, and this led to new techniques where the form of the building is skeletal, with the main loading being located in the central core and the external “curtain wall” constructed of lightweight materials, for instance glass and aluminium. This substitution of lighter materials for concrete made it possible for architects to design buildings of 400 to 500m in height. Having said that, it should be borne in mind that the tallest building in the world is currently Petronas Towers, rising 452m above Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia and that it is also the tallest concrete structure in the world.

Getting higher and higher with the development of relevant technology, skyscrapers are a fair indication of economic trends, going up during the boom years only to come to a standstill when recessions cut off funds. For this reason, the 1980s heralded a wave of skyscraper building while the less promising 1990s slowed it down. Furthermore, the bulk of the building work has moved from its home in the USA (Chicago being the birthplace of the skyscraper) to Asia, reflecting the new power, prestige and confidence of the growing tiger economies. It is, therefore, no wonder that Kuala Lumpur’s Petronas Towers superseded Chicago’s Sear’s Tower, which at 443m had been the tallest building in the world for 22 years, in 1998.

The New World is, nevertheless, fighting back against this competition from the Pacific Rim, with plans for Chicago South Dearborn project (610m), to be completed by 2003. Europe, on the other hand, seems to have оpted out of the race altogether, the planned London Millennium Tower being scaled down from a projected 486m to 386m because otherwise people would consider it too tall! Europe’s current highest building, Commerzbank headquarters in Frankfurt, is, at 261m, no match for the American and Asian giants, and neither is London’s Canary Wharf (236m) which was the highest building in Europe until 1997. Asian giants in the pipeline are Tokyo’s Millennium Tower at 840m and Hong Коng’s Bionic Tower at a staggering 1,128m.

Asia and America may be experiencing an urge to push ever upwards, but there are sound reasons that have nothing to do with economy or lack of ambition, for keeping tall buildings to the 400 to 500m mark. Heights exceeding that present logistical problems, such as how to transport large numbers of people up and down the building, such as how to minimise wind sway (which may be as much as 3 metres (9 ft) in either direction, especially in the home of the skyscraper ‘windy city,’ Chicago!) and how to find investors to rent space in the middle, assuming that the bottom will fill with shops and the top with hotels and observation towers. Experts, however, are working on two of these problems, experimenting with different kinds of lift and conducting extensive wind tunnel tests to help eliminate wind-induced sway.

In times of economic austerity, though, can we really afford to build these energy-intensive structures? Well, they are in several respects eco-friendly, providing a lot of office space on relatively little land, concentrating several services in one place and reducing overspill into green belts.

Nevertheless, it is no mean feat to equip skyscrapers with renewable sources of energy, as ideas such as covering the facade with photo-voltaic cells to convert light energy into electricity are extremely expensive. Street-level winds, however, may be utilised to power turbines which generate electricity within the buildings, and there specific plans for a citygate ecotower in London (456m), which would derive half its energy sources from solar and wind power.

So, what will the future hold for skyscrapers? Will they change the face and the skyline of our cities just to make a point, as it were? Who knows? Even today, though, King Kong would be spoiled for choice.

6. Why does the author mention King Kong?

A. To remind the reader of the famous film.

B. To show the size of the building.

C. To prove that today King Kong would not be a good choice.

D. Because King Kong was a menacing ape.

7. The author states that people like to build big because

A it compensates for their inability to travel in space.

В it is rooted in our history.

С it seems to be an innate desire.

D they like to live in pyramids and palaces.

8. The modern skyscraper was first made possible by

A a device invented in the nineteenth century.

В buildings more than 5 storeys high.

С the steel-frame building technique.

D a commercial building in New York.

9. Skyscrapers are a mirror of

A the tiger economies.

В Asian power.

С building trends.

D economic tendencies.

10. What is the European attitude towards very high buildings?

A More enthusiastic than American and Asian ones.

В Competitive and aggressive.

С A lack of ambition.

D Not particularly enthusiastic.

11. Why are so many skyscrapers no more than 400 - 500m tall?

A Because people like them that way.

В Because investors don"t want them taller.

С Because taller buildings present specific problems.

D Because the middle floors cannot be let easily.

12. In ecological terms, skyscrapers today

A are too expensive and energy-intensive.

В are always eco-friendly.

С cannot be heated by alternative energy.

D are of some benefit to the environment.

USE OF ENGLISH

Task 1. For questions 1-15 read the text about school calendars in America. Solve the crossword puzzle by replacing the underlined words or word combinations with their synonyms. The (0 down ) and (00 across ) in the beginning of the text have been done as examples to help you .

Today we continue our discussion of school calendars as a new American school year (0 down ) starts.

Some people say the (00 across ) conventional calendar of one hundred eighty days no longer meets the (1 down ) requirements of American society. They point out that students in most other industrial countries are in school more hours a day and more days a year.

Critics also say a long summer vacation causes students to forget much of what they learned.

Schools are under pressure to raise test scores. Some have changed their calendars to try to improve students’ results. They have (2 across ) extended the school day or added days to the year or both.

This can be (3 down ) expensive if schools need air conditioning on hot days and school (4 across ) staff need to be paid for the extra time.

Local businesses may object to a longer school year because students are unable to work long in summer jobs.

Some schools have a year-round (5 down ) program . The school year is extended over twelve months. Instead of a long vacation, there are many short ones.

The National Association of Year-Round Education says almost five percent of public school students (6 down ) go to year-round schools. It says almost all of the states have some public schools that are open all year.

Some parts of the country had year-round programs in the nineteenth century, mostly for economic reasons. They felt it wasted money to use school (7 down ) buildings for only part of the year. Some (8 across ) teachers think year-round education gives (9 across ) help and encouragement to students from poor families who (10 down ) do not have much financial assistance at home as their parents might not have permanent (11 across ) work.

Year-round (12 across ) education can also (13 across ) decrease crowding in schools. In one version, students attend school for nine weeks and then have three weeks off. The students are in groups that are not all in school at the same time.

Another year-round calendar has all students in school together for nine weeks and off for three. This is meant to (14 across ) supply the continuous learning that can be lost over a long break. And the main purpose of schools is to improve students’ (15 across ) achievements .

But year-round schooling has opponents. They say it can cause problems for families when they want to make summer plans. And they say it interferes with activities outside school – including summer employment.

Some experts say no really good studies have been done to measure the effect of school calendars on performance.

Task 2. For questions 16-30 , complete the text with the words from the box. You may use one word more than once. Write the letter A-M for the word you choose in the box below the text.

My mother always told us “there is no use crying over spilt 16) ____.” That means you should not get angry when something bad happens and cannot be changed.

​People said my mother was “a good 17) _____.” She would always help anyone in need.

We never had to “walk on 18) ______” around her – we did not have to be careful about what we said or did because she never got angry with us.

She also told us “you have to break some eggs to make an 19) _____.” This means you have to do what is necessary to move forward.

My mother believed “you are what you 20) _____” – a good diet is important for good health. She would always give us nutritious food. She liked serving us meat and potatoes for dinner. “Meat and potatoes” can also mean the most important part of something. It describes someone who likes simple things.

Here is another expression about meat: “one man’s meat is another man’s 21) ____.” In other words, one person might like something very much while another person might hate the same thing.

My father was also a good and honest person. People said he was “the 22) ____ of the earth.” He would never “pour 23) ____ on a wound” – or make someone feel worse about something that was already a painful experience.

However, sometimes he told us a story that seemed bigger than life. So we had to “take it with a 24) ____ of salt” – that is, we could not believe everything he told us.

My husband has a good job. He makes enough money to support our family. So we say “he brings home the 25) _____.”

He can “cut the 26) _____” – or do what is expected of him at work.

It is easy to find my husband in a crowd. He stands almost two meters tall. He is “a tall drink of water.”

I take the train to work. It is not a pleasant ride because the train can be full of people. It is so crowded that we are “packed like 27) _____” – just like small fish in a can.

When we fail to see problems at work, my supervisor tells us to “wake up and smell the 28) ____” – we need to pay more attention and fix the problem.

I once made a big mistake at the office and felt foolish. I had “ 29) ____ on my face.”

Over the weekend, my friend invited me to watch a football game on television. But I do not like football. It is “not my cup of 30) ____.”

We hope we have given you “food for thought” – that is, something to think about.

Task 3. For tasks 31-40 , change the word given in capitals on the right in such a way that it can fit the text lexically and grammatically.

Task 4. For questions 41-50 , think of one word only which can be used appropriately in all three sentences.

41. ● I need more ………………………….…… at using this computer program.

● I am worried about my interview because I’m a bit out of …………..……… .

● The …………..……… of dumping the waste into the river has to be stopped.

42. ● Her teeth were …………….... after she’d worn braces on them for two years.

● He managed to speak with a steady, …….………voice, despite the fact that he was furious with them.

● Make sure the surface is ……………..….. before you put up the wall paper.

43. ● The ………………..… with him is that he doesn’t have any patience.

● She went to a lot of ………………..… to prepare the meal.

● She’s had a lot of back ……………..…. lately and will have to have an operation.

44. ● He is very ………………….. with money.

● That’s a …………………. thing to do.

● The ……………….... annual temperature is 25ºC.

45. ● She began to ………………….…… the milk into the sauce.

● He was in a deep sleep and didn’t …………………..….. once all night.

● The book seemed to ……………………..….. him profoundly.

46. ●You can carry this box; it’s ……………………………. .

● She bought a beautiful …………………………. blue dress.

●There was a ……………………..…. knock at the door.

47. ● Her house was very close to the local rubbish ……………………..…. .

● Let me give you a …………………....: you need to get some legal advice.

●She left a ………………….…. on the table for the waiter.

48. ● He …………………………... on you for support.

● She …………………………. Angela as one of her closest friends.

● It’s a person’s character that ……………………… not their appearance.

49. ●They haven’t ……….. a date for the wedding, but it will be sometime next spring.

● His arm isn’t straight because the doctor didn’t ……………….…. it properly.

● If you make the salad, I’ll …………………………..… the table.

50. ●Too much criticism is hard to …………………..…….. .

● Oh, you know how silly he is. He’ll ……………..…. any old story, no matter how unbelievable it is.

● The cost of private education will …………….…. up your savings in no time.

Writing

Task 1. The editor of a student magazine, publishing a series of articles on different cultural events at your school, has asked you to contribute an article to it. You have decided to write about the film The Identical you saw last week with your family.

Read the film advertisement and handwritten notes prepared for the article. Then, using the information appropriately, write your article for the magazine.

Remember to:

● include a title;

● use an appropriate style;

● make a critical evaluation and analysis of the event;

● recommend what should be done to make this kind of event better and more acceptable for school children and their families.

Write 220-250 words .

The text of the advertisement or any of its parts should not be copied in your article, USE YOUR OWN WORDS AND EXPRESSIONS.

Time: 50 minutes

Film Advertisement

Started much later Brilliant acting Good choice

No ice-cream Too much Too short Interesting, but not dynamic enough

Some songs are silly No Elvis music is heard

______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

YOU CAN USE THE REVERSE SIDE

Предварительный просмотр:

Task 1.

Police Officer: Hello. 24th Precinct. Officer Jones speaking.

Man: Help. Yeah, uh, it was wild, I mean really bizarre.

Police Officer: Calm down sir! Now, what do you want to report?

Man: Well, I"d like to report a UFO sighting.

Police Officer: A what?

Man: What do you mean "what?" An unidentified flying object!

Police Officer: Wait, tell me exactly what you saw.

Man: Well, I was driving home from a party about three hours ago, so it was about 2:00 AM, when I saw this bright light overhead.

Police Officer: Okay. And then what happened?

Man: Oh, man. Well, it was out of this world. I stopped to watch the light when it disappeared behind a hill about a kilometer ahead of me.

Police Officer: Alright. Then what?

Man: Well, I got back in my car and I started driving toward where the UFO landed.

Police Officer: Now, how do you know it was a UFO? Perhaps you only saw the lights of an airplane , or the headlights of an approaching car . Things like that happen, you know.

Man: Well if it was that, how do you explain "the BEAST"?

Police Officer: What do you mean, "the BEAST"?

Man: Okay. I kept driving for about five minutes when all of a sudden, this giant, hairy creature jumped out in front of my car.

Police Officer: Oh, yeah.Then what?

Man: Well, then, the beast picked up the front of my car and said, "Get out of the car. I"m taking you to my master!" Something like that.

Police Officer: Wow? A hairy alien who can speak English! Come on!

Man: I"m not making this up, if that"s what you"re suggesting. Then, when I didn"t get out of the car, the beast opened the car door, carried me on his shoulders to this round-shaped flying saucer, and well, that"s when I woke up along side the road. The beast must have knocked me out and left me there.

Police Officer: Well, that"s the best story I"ve heard all night, sir. Now, have you been taking any medication, drugs, or alcohol in the last 24 hours? You mentioned you went to a party.

Man: What? Well, I did have a few beers, but I"m telling the truth.

Police Officer: Okay, okay. We have a great therapist that deals with THESE kinds of cases.

Man : "Humph" What do you mean "Humph." I was the star player in high school.

Woman : Yeah, twenty-five years ago. Look, I just don"t want you having a heart attack running up and down the court.

Man :So, what are you suggesting? Should I just abandon the idea? I"m not that out of shape .

Woman : Well . . . you ought to at least have a physical before you begin. I mean, it HAS been at least five years since you played at all.

Man :Well, okay, but . . .

Woman : And you need to watch your diet and cut back on the fatty foods, like ice cream. And you should try eating more fresh fruits and vegetables.

Man : Yeah, you"re probably right.

Woman : And you should take up a little weight training to strengthen your muscles or perhaps try cycling to build up your cardiovascular system . Oh, and you need to go to bed early instead of watching TV half the night.

Man : Hey, you"re starting to sound like my personal fitness instructor!

Woman : No, I just love you, and I want you to be around for a long, long time.

Task 3. Integrated reading and listening

Today let’s talk about the effect of music on babies. There’s the theory about the so-called Mozart Effect, which refers to the supposed increased performance of babies after listening to Mozart. But the claims made in the book have been challenged and disproved by a number of other studies. Let me tell you about them.

First, let’s talk about a study often referred to that supports the Mozart Effect where the participants took three different tests. While the test-takers were completing the test, they listened to either Mozart, relaxation music, or nothing at all. Well, what is often left out is that the test-takers in the study were not babies at all – they were college students. Which explains why they were able to take the tests in the first place, right? Anyway, even if we decide to overlook the fact that we’re talking about college students, the effects mentioned in the study were also not long-lasting. The extra nine points that were added to their IQs after listening to Mozart went away after about 15 minutes.

Another claim made is that listening to Mozart makes children more creative. It even says that if you play Mozart for babies before they are born, they will be born more creative than babies who did not listen to Mozart. But there is no actual scientific proof of any of this. Since the theory of the Mozart Effect became popular, claims like this have been made over and over again, mostly to help sell expecting parents CDs of classical music. But, until some proof is reported, we have to consider such claims as nothing more than marketing tools.